Guidelines for the preparation of Ulyanovsk. Guidelines for the preparation of Ulyanovsk Guidelines for the preparation and execution of written work For students of the specialty
1. Bowels of the Earth.
Tasks according to Fig.1.
1) Sign the average value of the Earth's radius (indicated by the arrow): 6.350 km.
2) Measure the radius of the circle in Fig. 1 and determine how many times it is reduced relative to the radius of the Earth.
3) Using a compass, mark in the figure the boundaries between the three main inner shells of the Earth.
4) Write their names at the top of the picture.
5) Fill in the table, making the necessary calculations, and indicate in the lower part of Fig. 1 the data obtained for the inner shells of the Earth.
Tasks according to Fig.2.
1) Indicate the boundaries of the earth's crust.
2) Sign the thickness of its parts (under the continents, under the oceans).
Write in the missing words.
Lithosphere = lithospheric plates+ upper part of the mantle
2. The structure of the lithosphere.
Tasks according to Fig.3.
1) Designate the lower boundary of the lithosphere.
2) Arrows show the directions of movement of lithospheric plates (in areas A, B, C).
3) Correlate (connect with lines) the areas indicated by the letters and the processes occurring at the boundaries of the lithospheric plates.
A - Immersion of one plate under another.
B - Collision of continental plates.
B - Expansion of lithospheric plates.
3. How to study the internal structure of the Earth.
Complete the diagram.
Pathfinder Geographer School.
Create a model of a "solid" Earth.
Work plan.
1) Make stencils from plasticine that will help highlight the core, mantle and earth's crust. Let's say we want to make a model of the Earth scaled down 200 million times. Then the radius of our model will be equal to 6371 km: 200,000,000 = 637,100,000 cm: 200,000,000 = 3.2 cm. And the radius of the core with the mantle will be equal to (6371 - 41) km: 200,000,000 = 633,000,000: 200,000,000 = 3.2 cm.
2) Make with the help of stencils first the core, and then the core with the mantle.
3) Cover the model with the thinnest layer (less than 1 mm) of blue (ocean) and brown (earth's crust) plasticine.
4) Lay out the slice with a stack so that the internal structure of the Earth can be seen on the model.
5) Attach a thin stick (for example, bamboo) 10-15 cm long so that the earth's axis is obtained.
6) Make a stand and fix the model of the Earth on it. The axis of your model should be tilted at 66.5 degrees to the base.
Read text. 1) a. 2) b. 3) c. 4) d. "Continental shelf Russian Federation(hereinafter referred to as the continental shelf) includes the seabed and subsoil of submarine areas located outside the territorial sea of the Russian Federation (hereinafter referred to as the territorial sea) throughout the natural extension of its land territory to the outer border of the underwater margin of the mainland. The inner limit of the continental shelf is the outer limit of the territorial sea. The outer limit of the continental shelf is 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured, provided that the outer limit of the continental margin does not extend more than 200 nautical miles. If the continental margin extends more than 200 nautical miles from the indicated baselines, the outer limit of the continental shelf coincides with the outer margin of the continental margin, as determined in accordance with the norms of international law.”. Read the excerpts from the text of Article 1 of the Law of the Russian Federation "On the Continental Shelf of the Russian Federation" and complete the task. What letter in the figure indicates the outer limit of the continental shelf of the Russian Federation? Correct answer.
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"Text in Presentation" - Typing an entire page in italics is disrespectful to the reader's diopters. Insert - Picture - From file. Paragraph alignment. Carefully choose illustrations for slides. How to choose text color? Insert - Drawing - Pictures. It is best to make all presentation slides in the same style. The most important demo tool is you!
"Text summary of the lesson" - Consolidation of new material VIII. Prove that your pen is better than another. What questions does the text-message, text-description, text-reasoning answer? Lesson plan. Updating knowledge about the types of texts. We will compose a text about a tit from the picture in the textbook. What texts are we familiar with? Consolidation of new material.
"Types of text" - A fundamental question: are all types of text built the same way? Questions. Lesson plan. This project covers the subject: Russian. Materials of educational-methodical package. The purpose of the project: to introduce younger students to the types of text. The project involved: elementary school students.
"Example text" - Conclusion. Main part. Warbler is presented in the form of a sailor, and the dictionary is presented in the form of a ship. Therefore, in the essay, an independent in-depth analysis of a fragment from the proposed text is important. Stages of writing. The essay must be at least 50 words. Final part. What does the text say?
"Sentence and text" - Ending - the final part. II option. (Heading options: “Misha”, “On the street”, “Good deed”, “Boredom”). Misha wandered the streets of the city. Title - title, title. A poem by A.S. Pushkin. Enlightenment - dissemination of knowledge, education. Beginning - introductory, introductory part. Soon the puppy grew up and became Petya's true friend.
What are the environmental consequences of forest fires?
Response elements:
1) to the disappearance of certain species of animals and plants;
2) to a change in the composition of the biocenosis, a change in the ecosystem
It is known that at high temperature environment, the skin of the face turns red, and at low turns pale. Explain why this is happening.
Response elements:
1) skin vessels at high temperature expand reflexively, blood rushes to the skin, it turns red;
2) at a low temperature, the vessels of the skin, on the contrary, narrow reflexively, there is less blood in them and the skin turns pale
Malaria is a human disease that causes anemia. By whom is it caused? Explain the cause of anemia.
Response elements:
What are the signs of venous bleeding?
Response elements:
1) with venous bleeding, the blood has a dark red color;
2) blood flows out of the wound in an even stream, without shocks
What is the purpose of using yeast mushrooms in baking bread and bakery products? What process takes place?
Response elements:
1) yeast, feeding on sugar, converts it into alcohol and carbon dioxide, this process is called fermentation;
2) this process is used in bread baking, since the carbon dioxide released contributes to the rise of the dough.
To establish the cause hereditary disease examined the patient's cells and found a change in the length of one of the chromosomes. What research method allowed to establish the cause of this disease? What kind of mutation is it associated with?
Response elements:
1) the cause of the disease is established using the cytogenetic method;
2) the disease is caused by a chromosomal mutation - the loss or addition of a chromosome fragment
Explain why the blood in the heart only flows in one direction.
Response elements:
1) between the atria and ventricles there are flap valves, and on the border between the ventricles and arteries - semilunar valves;
2) valves open in one direction only and prevent backflow of blood
In what area of scientific and practical activity does a person use analyzing crossing and for what purpose?
Response elements:
1) in plant and animal breeding;
2) when breeding new varieties or breeds, if it is necessary to find out the genotype of an individual with a dominant trait
The figure shows an arrowhead with leaves of various shapes (1, 2, 3). What form of variability is characteristic of the diversity of these leaves? Explain the reason for their appearance. What shape of leaves will the arrowhead grow on the shallows?
Response elements:
1) the variety of leaf shapes in one plant is modification variability;
2) the leaves of the plant developed in different environments and living conditions, so it formed leaves of different shapes;
3) the arrowhead on the shallows will have arrow-shaped leaves
What criterion of species indicates that the butterflies shown in the figure belong to the same species? Under what form of selection and why does the number of dark-colored butterflies increase in areas where industrial production prevails over agricultural production? Justify the answer.
Response elements:
1) morphological criterion - manifested in the color of the integument of the body of butterflies, similar in shape and size to wings, antennae and body parts;
2) the driving form of selection - preserves dark-colored butterflies;
3) the dark color of the wings is a condition for survival in industrial areas: since dark-colored butterflies are less visible on dark tree trunks, they are less likely to be pecked by birds
Which human organ is indicated by the number 4 in the figure? What structure does it have? Explain the functions it performs based on its structure.
Response elements:
1) organ - trachea;
2) the walls of the trachea are formed by cartilaginous semirings, the back wall is soft;
3) air passes through the trachea to the bronchi and lungs, cartilaginous semirings do not allow the trachea to subside;
4) the soft back wall is adjacent to the esophagus and does not interfere with the passage of food through it
Name the structures indicated in the figure by the letters A and B. What functions do these structures perform? What part of the auditory analyzer provides the transmission of the nerve impulse?
Response elements:
1) A - balance organ (semicircular canals); B - auditory tube (Eustachian tube);
2) the organ of balance determines the position of the body in space;
3) the auditory tube provides pressure equalization in the middle and outer ear;
4) the conductive part - the auditory nerve provides the transmission of a nerve impulse (excitation)
Determine the phase and type of cell division shown in the figure. Give a reasoned answer, provide relevant evidence.
Response elements:
1) metaphase of the first division, meiosis I;
2) in metaphase I, chromosomes are located above and below the equatorial plane;
3) homologous chromosomes are arranged in the form of bivalents, which is typical for meiosis I
Name the fetus, the section of which is shown in the figure. What structural elements are indicated in the figure by the numbers 1, 2 and 3 and what functions do they perform?
Response elements:
1) the fruit is a grain;
2) 1 - endosperm - storage of organic substances;
3) 2 - cotyledons (part of the embryo) - transport of nutrients from the endosperm during seed germination;
4) 3 - embryo (embryonic root, stalk, bud) - gives rise to a new plant
Find three errors in the given text. Specify offer numbers
1. Under favorable conditions, bacteria form spores. 2. With the help of spores, bacteria reproduce asexually. 3. In the ecosystem, putrefactive bacteria destroy nitrogen-containing organic compounds dead bodies, turning them into humus. 4. Mineralizing bacteria decompose complex organic compounds of humus to simple inorganic substances. 5. A small group of bacteria has chloroplasts, with the participation of which photosynthesis occurs.
Response elements:
1) 1 - spores are formed in bacteria under adverse conditions;
2) 2 - spores in bacteria do not perform the function of reproduction, but contribute to the transfer of adverse conditions;
3) 5 - bacteria do not contain chloroplasts
in which they are made, correct them.
1. The polysaccharide cellulose performs a reserve, storage function in the plant cell. 2. Accumulating in the cell, carbohydrates perform mainly a regulatory function. 3. In arthropods, the polysaccharide chitin forms the integument of the body. 4. In plants, cell walls are formed by the polysaccharide starch. 5. Polysaccharides are hydrophobic.
Response elements
1) 1 - cellulose polysaccharide performs a structural function in a plant cell (forms a cell wall);
2) 2 - accumulating, carbohydrates in the cell perform mainly an energy (storage) function;
3) 4 - cell walls are formed by the polysaccharide cellulose
Find three errors in the given text. Specify offer numbers
in which they are made, correct them.
1. With a lack of iodine intake into the human body, the synthesis of thyroxine is disrupted. 2. An insufficient amount of thyroxin in the blood reduces the intensity of metabolism, slows down the rhythm of heart contractions. 3. In childhood, a lack of thyroxin leads to rapid growth child. 4. With excessive secretion of the thyroid gland, excitability is weakened nervous system. 5. The functions of the thyroid gland are regulated by the cerebral cortex.
Response elements: Mistakes in sentences:
1) 3 - lack of thyroxin leads to growth retardation (dwarfism);
2) 4 - with excessive secretion of thyroid hormone, the excitability of the nervous system increases;
3) 5 - the functions of the thyroid gland are regulated by the pituitary gland
Find three errors in the given text. Specify offer numbers
in which they are made, correct them.
1. In meiosis, two successive divisions occur. 2. Between the two divisions there is an interphase in which replication occurs. 3. In the prophase of the first division of meiosis, conjugation and crossing over occur. 4. Crossing over is the convergence of homologous chromosomes. 5. The result of conjugation is the formation of crossover chromosomes.
Response elements: Mistakes in sentences:
1) 2 – there is no replication between two divisions of meiosis in interphase;
2) 4 - crossing over - this is the exchange of genes between homologous chromosomes;
3) 5 - the result of conjugation is the convergence of homologous chromosomes and the formation of pairs (bivalents)
1. The genealogical method used in human genetics is based on the study of the family tree. 2. Thanks to the genealogical method, the types of inheritance of specific traits were established. 3. The twin method allows you to predict the birth of identical twins. 4. When using the cytogenetic method, the inheritance of blood groups in a person is established. 5. The nature of inheritance of hemophilia (poor blood clotting) was established by studying the structure and number of chromosomes. 6. In last years it has been shown that quite often many hereditary pathologies in humans are associated with metabolic disorders. 7. Anomalies of carbohydrate, amino acid, lipid and other types of metabolism are known.
Elements resp. eta: errors were made in the sentences:
1) 3 - the twin method does not allow predicting the birth of twins, but makes it possible to study the interaction of the genotype and environmental factors, their influence on the formation of the phenotype;
2) 4 - the cytogenetic method does not allow you to establish blood groups, but allows you to identify genomic and chromosomal abnormalities;
3) 5 - the nature of the inheritance of hemophilia was established by compiling and analyzing the family tree
Find three errors in the given text. Point out the sentences with errors and correct them.
1. The endocrine glands have ducts through which the secret enters the blood. 2. Endocrine glands secrete biologically active regulatory substances - hormones. 3. All hormones are chemically proteins. 4. Insulin is a pancreatic hormone. 5. It regulates blood glucose. 6. With a lack of insulin, the concentration of glucose in the blood decreases. 7. With a lack of insulin, diabetes mellitus develops.
Response elements: mistakes are made in the sentences:
1) 1 - endocrine glands do not have ducts, but secrete directly into the blood;
2) 3 - hormones can be not only proteins, but also other organic substances (lipids);
3) 6 - with a lack of insulin, the concentration of glucose in the blood rises
Find three errors in the given text. Point out the sentences with errors and correct them.
1. The relationship between man and animals is confirmed by the presence of rudiments and atavisms in them, which are classified as comparative anatomical evidence of evolution. 2. Rudiments are signs that are extremely rare in humans, but are present in animals. 3. The rudiments of a person include an appendix, abundant hair on the human body, a lunate fold in the corner of the eyes. 4. Atavisms are signs of a return to the signs of ancestors. 5. Normally, in humans, these genes are blocked and do not “work” 6. But there are cases when they appear in violation of the individual development of a person - phylogeny. 7. Examples of atavisms are: multiple nipples, the birth of tailed people.
Response elements: mistakes are made in the sentences:
1) 2 - rudiments are common in humans, in animals - these are usually developed signs;
2) 3 - abundant hair on the human body - this is an example of atavism:
3) 6 - individual development is called ontogeny
Find three errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. The human urinary system contains the kidneys, adrenal glands, ureter, bladder and the urethra. 2. The main organs of the excretory system are the kidneys. 3. Blood and lymph containing the end products of metabolism enter the kidneys through the vessels. 4. Blood filtration and urine formation occur in the renal pelvis. 5. The absorption of excess water into the blood occurs in the tubule of the nephron. 6. Urine enters the bladder through the ureters. 7. Normally, the urine of a healthy person does not contain glucose and proteins.
Response elements: mistakes are made in the sentences:
1) 1 - the adrenal glands belong to the endocrine system, and not to the excretory;
2) 3 - only blood enters the kidneys through the vessels, lymph does not enter;
3) 4 - blood filtration occurs in the nephrons of the kidneys
What is the complexity of the organization of reptiles compared to amphibians? List at least four signs and explain their meaning.
Response elements:
1) an increase in the number of vertebrae of the cervical region, which allows not only to raise and lower the head, but also to turn it;
2) lengthening of the airways (appearance of bronchi), breathing only with the help of the lungs, which have a cellular structure, which increases the area of gas exchange in the lungs and its intensity;
3) the appearance in the three-chamber heart of an incomplete septum in the ventricle, so the blood is partially mixed;
4) internal fertilization, the appearance of a supply of nutrients and protective shells in the egg;
5) complication of the nervous system and sensory organs, development of the forebrain;
6) dry skin without glands with horny formations, providing protection against moisture loss in the body
What is the concern for the offspring of birds? Give at least three examples. What reflexes underlie the care of offspring?
Response elements:
1) birds build nests (some guard nesting sites);
2) incubate eggs and hatch chicks;
3) feed, protect and train their offspring;
4) unconditional reflexes (instinct) are the basis of caring for offspring
What changes occur in the composition of blood in the capillaries of the systemic circulation in humans? What kind of blood is produced? What process is promoted by slow blood flow in capillaries?
Response elements:
1) blood in the capillaries of a large circle gives off oxygen and is saturated with carbon dioxide;
2) in the capillaries of the systemic circulation, nutrients pass from the blood into the tissue fluid, and metabolic products from the tissue fluid into the blood;
3) blood turns from arterial to venous;
4) slow blood flow in the capillaries contributes to the complete exchange of substances between blood and body cells
What is farsightedness in humans? Explain the features of congenital and acquired farsightedness.
Response elements:
1) the image of close objects appears behind the retina;
2) with a congenital form, the eyeball is shortened;
3) the acquired form occurs due to a decrease in the bulge of the lens and the loss of its elasticity
What features of the external structure of fish contribute to a decrease in energy costs when moving in water? List at least three features.
Response elements:
1) the streamlined shape of the body, the fusion of its departments;
2) tiled arrangement of scales;
3) mucus, abundantly covering the skin;
4) the presence of fins, features of their structure
Which organisms were the first to provide oxygen in the atmosphere
and how did the accumulation of oxygen affect the further evolution of life on Earth?
Response elements:
1) an increase in the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere occurred due to the emergence of the ability for photosynthesis in unicellular organisms (cyanobacteria);
2) the accumulation of oxygen made possible the appearance of aerobes and the oxygen stage energy metabolism;
3) the accumulation of oxygen ensured the formation of a protective ozone screen and the emergence of organisms on land;
4) oxygen oxidation ensured the efficiency of metabolism and the emergence of multicellular organisms
Read the text.
The housefly is a two-winged insect whose hindwings have evolved into halteres. The mouth apparatus of the licking type, the fly feeds on semi-liquid food. The fly lays its eggs on rotting organic matter. Its larva is white, has no legs, feeds on food waste, grows rapidly and turns into a red-brown chrysalis. An adult fly emerges from the pupa. What type criteria are described in the text? Explain the answer.
Response elements
1) morphological criterion - a description of the appearance of the fly, larva, pupa, mouth apparatus;
2) ecological criterion - food habits, habitat;
3) physiological criterion - features of reproduction, development and growth
What plants dominate in tropical forests - insect pollinated or wind pollinated? Justify the answer.
Response elements:
1) plants pollinated by insects predominate in tropical forests;
2) in tropical forests, trees are evergreen, foliage makes it difficult to carry pollen by wind;
3) the abundance of plants per unit area also prevents the transfer of pollen (high density of plants)
What aromorphoses in the process of evolution appeared in ferns in comparison with mosses and allowed them to conquer the land? Give at least four signs. Explain the answer.
Response elements:
1) the predominant generation is the sporophyte, the reduction of the gametophyte;
2) the appearance of roots contributed to a wide distribution on land, allowed water to be absorbed from the soil;
3) the development of conductive tissues - made it possible to carry it through the plant to a great height;
4) improvement of the integumentary tissue - allowed to survive in a drier climate;
5) the development of mechanical tissue - provided the appearance of woody forms
Read the text.
Scotch pine is a light-loving plant, has a tall, slender trunk. The crown is formed only near the top. Pine grows on sandy soils, chalk mountains. It has well developed main and lateral roots. Pine leaves are needle-shaped, two needles per node on the shoot. Greenish-yellow male cones and reddish female cones develop on young shoots. The pollen is carried by the wind and landed on the female cones, where fertilization takes place. After a year and a half, the seeds ripen, with the help of which the pine reproduces.
What type criteria are described in the text? Explain the answer.
Response elements
1) morphological criterion - a description of the root system, trunk, needles, cones;
2) ecological criterion - features of life, light-loving, soil requirements;
3) physiological criterion - features of pollination, fertilization, seed maturation, reproduction
Why the living coelacanth coelacanth fish it is forbidden consider the ancestor of amphibians? Give at least three pieces of evidence.
Response elements:
1) the ancestors of amphibians lived in fresh water, in the coastal zone, and the coelacanth is adapted to life in the depths of salt water (ocean);
2) the ancestors of amphibians could breathe atmospheric oxygen with the help of their lungs, but coelacanth does not breathe atmospheric oxygen;
3) the ancestors of amphibians could move along the bottom of the reservoir with the help of paired fins, coelacanth with the help of paired fins can only swim in the water
Most modern bony fish are in a state of biological progress. Provide at least three pieces of evidence to support this statement.
Response elements:
1) bony fish are characterized by high species diversity and high abundance;
2) they have a large area (the World Ocean and water bodies of the globe);
3) they have numerous adaptations to various conditions of the aquatic environment (color, body shape, fin structure, etc.).
The genetic apparatus of the virus is represented by an RNA molecule. A fragment of this molecule has the nucleotide sequence: GUGAUAGGUTSUAUTSU. Determine the nucleotide sequence of a fragment of a double-stranded DNA molecule, which is synthesized as a result of reverse transcription on the RNA of the virus. Set the sequence of nucleotides in mRNA and amino acids in the protein fragment of the virus, which is encoded in the found DNA fragment. The template for mRNA synthesis, on which the viral protein is synthesized, is the second DNA strand, which is complementary to the first DNA strand found in viral RNA. To solve the problem, use the table of the genetic code.
Response elements:
1) a fragment of a double-stranded DNA molecule:
TSATTTTSTSAGATAGA-
GTGATAGGTTCTATCT-;
2) mRNA sequence: -TSACUAUOTSTSAGAUAGA-;
3) amino acid sequence: -gis-tyr-pro-asp-arg-
The segment of the DNA molecule that determines the primary structure of the polypeptide contains the following nucleotide sequence: AATGCACGG. Determine the nucleotide sequence on mRNA, the number of tRNAs involved in peptide biosynthesis, the nucleotide composition of their anticodons, and the amino acid sequence that these tRNAs carry. To solve the problem, use the table of the genetic year. Explain your results.
1) mRNA is synthesized on the DNA template according to the principle of complementarity; its sequence: UUATSGUGTSTS;
2) the anticodon of each tRNA consists of three nucleotides, therefore, three tRNA molecules, tRNA anticodons, are involved in the biosynthesis of the peptide: AAU, HCA, CHG, complementary to mRNA codons;
3) the amino acid sequence is determined by mRNA codons: – leu – arg – ala –
The karyotype of one of the fish species is 56 chromosomes. Determine the number of chromosomes during spermatogenesis in the cells of the growth zone and in the cells of the maturation zone at the end of the first division. Explain what processes take place in these zones.
Response elements:
1) there are 56 chromosomes in the growth zone;
2) in the zone of maturation at the end of the first division in cells of 28 chromosomes;
3) in the growth zone, the diploid cell grows, accumulates nutrients, the number of chromosomes corresponds to the karyotype of the organism (56);
4) in the zone of maturation, the cell divides by meiosis, and at the end of the first division, there are 28 chromosomes in the cells
The karyotype of one of the fish species has 56 chromosomes. Determine the number of chromosomes and DNA molecules in cells during oogenesis in the growth zone at the end of the interphase and at the end of the gamete maturation zone. Explain your results.
Response elements:
1) in the growth zone during interphase in cells, the number of chromosomes is 56; the number of DNA molecules is 112;
2) in the zone of final maturation of gametes in cells of 28 chromosomes; the number of DNA molecules is 28;
3) in the growth zone during the interphase period, the number of chromosomes does not change; the number of DNA molecules doubles due to replication;
4) at the end of the gamete maturation zone, meiosis occurs, the number of chromosomes decreases by 2 times, haploid cells are formed - gametes, each chromosome contains one DNA molecule.
What chromosome set is typical for the cells of spore-bearing shoots and the outgrowth of the club moss? Explain from what initial cells and as a result of what division they are formed.Response elements:
1) in the cells of spore-bearing shoots, the diploid set of chromosomes is 2n;
2) in the cells of the outgrowth, the haploid set of chromosomes is n;
3) spore-bearing shoots develop on an adult plant as a result of mitosis;
4) the outgrowth develops from a spore as a result of mitosis
What chromosome set is typical for the cells of the eight-nuclear embryo sac and embryonic bud of the wheat seed. Explain from what initial cells and as a result of what division they are formed.
Response elements:
1) cells of the eight-nuclear embryo sac are haploid - n;
2) in the cells of the germinal kidney, the diploid set of chromosomes is 2n;
3) cells of the germinal kidney develop from the zygote as a result of mitosis;
4) cells of the eight-nuclear embryo sac develop from the haploid megaspore by mitosis
In mice, the genes for coat color and tail length are not linked. The long tail (B) develops only in homozygotes, the short tail develops in heterozygotes. Recessive genes that determine the length of the tail, in the homozygous state, cause the death of embryos.
When crossing female mice with black hair, a short tail and a male with white hair, a long tail, 50% of individuals with black hair and a long tail were obtained, 50% - with black hair and a short tail. In the second case, the resulting female with black hair, short tail and a male with white hair, short tail were crossed. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parents, the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring in two crosses, the ratio of phenotypes in the second cross. Explain the reason for the resulting phenotypic segregation in the second cross.
The scheme for solving the problem includes:
1) first crossing:
genotypes of parents P: ♀ AABb x ♂ aaBB
black wool, white wool,
short tail a long tail
G: AB, Ab aB
F 1: AaBB - black coat, long tail;
AaBb - black coat, short tail;
2) second crossing:
genotypes of parents P: ♀ AaBb x ♂ aaBb
black wool, white wool,
short tail short tail
G: AB, Ab, aB, ab aB, ab
F 2: 1АаВВ - black wool, long tail;
2AaBb - black wool, short tail;
1aaBB - white coat, long tail;
2aaBb - white coat, short tail;
3) in the second crossing, the phenotypic splitting of individuals:
1: 2: 1: 2, since individuals with the genotype Aabb and aabb die at the embryonic stage.
When crossing a diheterozygous Chinese primrose plant with purple flowers, oval pollen and a plant with red flowers, round pollen, the offspring turned out: 51 plants with purple flowers, oval pollen, 15 with purple flowers, round pollen, 12 with red flowers, oval pollen; 59 - with red flowers, round pollen. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parents and offspring F1. Explain the formation of four phenotypic groups.
The scheme for solving the problem includes:
1) P: AaBb x aabb
purple flowers, red flowers
oval pollen round pollen
G: AB, Ab, aB, ab ab
2) F 1: 51 AaBb - purple flowers, oval pollen;
15 Aabb - purple flowers, round pollen;
12 aaBb - red flowers, oval pollen;
59 aabb - red flowers, round pollen;
3) the presence in the offspring of two groups of individuals (51 plants with purple flowers, oval pollen; 59 plants with red flowers, round pollen) in approximately equal proportions - the result of the linkage of genes A and B, a and b. The other two phenotypic groups are formed as a result of crossing over.
The shape of the wings in Drosophila is an autosomal gene, the eye color gene is located on the X chromosome. In Drosophila, the male sex is heterogametic. When crossing female Drosophila with normal wings, red eyes and males with reduced wings, white eyes, all offspring had normal wings and red eyes. The resulting F1 males were crossed with the original parental female. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes and phenotypes of the parents and offspring in two crosses. What laws of heredity are manifested in two crosses?
The scheme for solving the problem includes:
3) the laws of independent inheritance of traits appear, since the genes of two traits are in different pairs of chromosomes, and sex-linked inheritance, since one of the genes is on the X chromosome.
The shape of the wings in Drosophila is an autosomal gene, the eye shape gene is located on the X chromosome. Drosophila is heterogametic in males.
When two fruit flies with normal wings and normal eyes were crossed, a male with reduced wings and slit-like eyes appeared in the offspring. This male was crossed with parent. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parents and offspring F1, the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring F2. What proportion of females from the total number of offspring in the second crossing is phenotypically similar to the parent female? Determine their genotypes.
The scheme for solving the problem includes:
1) P: ♀ AaX B X b x ♂ AaX B Y
normal wings normal wings
normal eyes normal eyes
G: AX B, AX b, aX B, aX b, AX B, aX B, AY, aY
The genotype of the born male is aaX b Y;
1) P 1: ♀ AaX B X b x aaX b Y
normal wings reduced eyes
normal eyes slit eyes
G: AX B, AX b, aX B, aX b, aX b, aY
F 2: АаХ В Х b and АаХ В Y – normal wings, normal eyes;
АаХ b Х b and АаХ b Y – normal wings, slit-like eyes;
ааХ В Х b and ааХ В Y – reduced wings, normal eyes;
ааХ b Х b and ааХ b Y – reduced wings, slit-like eyes;
3) females - 1/8 of the total number of offspring in the second generation are phenotypically similar to the parent female; these are females with normal wings, normal eyes - Aa X B X b.
In cattle, the red color of the coat incompletely dominates over the light one, the color of heterozygous individuals is roan. The genes for the traits are autosomal, not linked.
They crossed red polled (B) cows and roan horned bulls, the offspring turned out to be red polled (hornless) and roan polled individuals. The resulting F1 hybrids with different phenotypes were crossed with each other. Make schemes for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of parents and offspring in both crosses, the ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation. What law of heredity is manifested in this case? Justify the answer.
The scheme for solving the problem includes:
in F2 you get 4 different phenotypes in the ratio:
3/8 AABB, 2AABb - red polled;
3/8 AaBB, 2AaBb - roan polled;
1/8 AAbb - red horned;
1/8 Aabb - roan horned;
3) the law of independent inheritance of traits is manifested, since the genes of two traits are located in different pairs of chromosomes.
In canaries, the presence of a crest is an autosomal gene, the plumage color gene is linked to the X chromosome. Heterogametic in birds is the female sex. A crested brown female canary was crossed with a crested (A) green (B) male, resulting in offspring: crested brown males, males without crest brown, crested green females, females without crest brown. The resulting brown crestless males were crossed with the resulting heterozygous crested green females. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parent individuals, the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring. What laws of heredity are manifested in this case? Justify the answer.
The scheme for solving the problem includes:
| 1) | P | ♀AaX b Y | × | ♂AaX B X b | |||||
| crested brown | crested green | ||||||||
| G | AX b, aX b, AY, aY | AX B, AX b , aX B, aX b | |||||||
| F1 | AAX b X b, AaX b X b - crested brown males; | ||||||||
| aaX b X b – brown males without crest; | |||||||||
| AAX B Y, AaX B Y - crested green females; | |||||||||
| aaXbY - brown females without crest; | |||||||||
| 2) | P1 | ♀AaX B Y | × | ♂aaX b X b | |||||
| G1 | AX B, AY, aX B , aY | aXb | |||||||
| F2 | АaX В X b – crested green males; | ||||||||
| АaX b Y – crested brown females; | |||||||||
| aaX B X b – green males without crest; | |||||||||
| aaX b Y – brown females without crest; | |||||||||
3) the law of independent inheritance of traits is manifested, since the genes of two traits are in different pairs of chromosomes, and the law of sex-linked inheritance, since one gene is located on the X chromosome.
"Knowledge is only then knowledge when it is acquired by the efforts of one's thought, and not by memory." L.N. Tolstoy.
I offer my students the address of the forum where we can receive interesting information needed when preparing a message, presentation, project work. http://forum2x2.ru
Separate section "Behind the pages of the textbook". The lesson lasts 40 minutes. Our communication can go on longer. Everyone can speak up, ask what they did not understand in the lesson.
Preparation for the exam in geography. Solving difficult tasks. New materials.
Download:
Preview:
9th grade geography. Screening test after the end of the first half of the year
I option
a) USA, Japan; b) Sweden, Türkiye; c) Georgia, Kazakhstan; d) North Korea, Belarus.
2. With which country does Russia have territorial disputes:
a) Armenia; b) Uzbekistan; c) Japan; d) Belarus.
3. Choose the correct option about the geographical location of Russia:
a) the territory is washed by the waters of the seas of three oceans;
b) the total area of the territory is about 22 million km2;
c) the length of the territory from west to east is about 3 thousand km;
d) the northernmost point is on the islands of Novaya Zemlya.
4. The Caucasus Mountains are located along the Russian border with:
a) Turkey; b) Armenia; c) Iran; d) Georgia.
a) Volgograd; b) Vorkuta; c) Kazan; d) Vladivostok.
6. Name the mineral resources concentrated mainly in the European part of Russia:
a) oil and gas; c) tin ores and table salt;
b) coal and gold; d) iron ores and potassium salts.
7. The maximum reserves of hydropower resources are concentrated in the basin:
a) the Volga; b) Yenisei; c) Obi; d) Cupid.
8. Determine the main areas for the placement of natural resources and the main areas of their consumption:
a) coincide: both resources and consumption in the European part;
b) coincide: both resources and consumption in the Asian part;
c) do not match: resources in the European part, consumption - in the Asian;
d) do not match: resources in the Asian part, consumption in the European part.
9. The largest share of the urban population is typical for:
a) Murmansk region; c) the Republic of Dagestan;
b) Krasnodar Territory; d) Stavropol Territory.
10. Choose the wrong option:
a) migration - the mechanical movement of the population;
b) village - a settlement with a population of
c) depopulation - the growth of cities;
d) natural increase - the difference between births and deaths.
11. Choose the correct statements.
a) Russians significantly predominate over other peoples;
b) the average life expectancy in Russia is higher than in Western Europe and Japan;
c) the population of Russia is 2 times the population of the United States;
d) Tatars belong to the Indo-European language family.
12. Sex ratio in Russia:
a) approximately equal; b) men slightly predominate;
c) slightly dominated by women; d) older women predominate.
13. Select the diagram that correctly shows the relationship between TPPs, HPPs and NPPs in electricity generation in Russia:
14. Millionaire Cities:
a) Perm, Chelyabinsk, Voronezh; c) Volgograd, Yekaterinburg, Krasnoyarsk;
b) Irkutsk, Khabarovsk, Vladivostok; d) Omsk, Kazan, Chelyabinsk.
15. Find the error:
a) Tatars are Buddhists. c) Chukchi - traditional beliefs;
b) Adyghe - Muslims; d) Udmurts - Orthodox;
16. Specify the coal basin:
a) Kansk-Achinsk; b) Moscow region; c) Pechorsky; d) Lensky.
17. In which of the basins is low-quality brown coal mined, but the cost of production is the lowest?
a) Kansk-Achinsk; b) Moscow region; c) Lensky; d) South Yakutsk.
18. Select HPP:
a) Smolensk; b) Reftinskaya; c) Kursk; d) fraternal.
19. Geothermal power plant built on the peninsula:
a) Taimyr; b) Kamchatka; c) Kola; d) Yamal.
20. Specify the deposit of copper ore:
a) Kachkanarskoye; b) Achinsk; c) Upper Ufaley; d) Krasnouralsk.
21. Indicate the correct combination "city - metal - location factor":
a) Krasnoyarsk - nickel - energy; c) Norilsk - aluminum - raw material;
b) Cherepovets - steel - transport; d) Monchegorsk - nickel - consumer.
22. Choose the wrong relationship scheme:
a) bauxite > alumina > aluminum smelting;
b) mining of phosphate rock > production of fertilizers;
c) logging > timber floating > sawmills;
d) oil > oil refining > production of potash fertilizers.
23. Highlight an area favorable for a car factory:
a) Rostov region; b) Kamchatka region; c) Murmansk region; d) Yakutia.
a) Volgograd - automotive industry; c) Pavlovo - production of buses;
b) Petrozavodsk - power engineering; d) Murmansk - aircraft industry.
25. Indicate the area of reindeer breeding:
a) Chukotka Autonomous Okrug; c) Republic of Altai;
b) the Republic of Kalmykia; d) Vologda region.
26. Indicate the correct combination "district - agricultural crops":
a) the Volga region - citrus fruits, melons, rice;
b) North Caucasus - rye, sunflower, grapes;
c) TsChR - sugar beet, wheat, sunflower;
G) Far East- rice, soybeans, grapes.
a) Tuapse - oil; b) Murmansk - forest; c) Dudinka - grain; d) Vladivostok - ore.
Grade 9
Verification test after the end of the first half of the year
II option
1. With which countries does Russia have only maritime borders:
a) Ukraine, Kazakhstan; c) Azerbaijan, Estonia.
b) Japan, Great Britain; d) Türkiye, Japan;
2. Which of the statements about the borders of Russia is true:
a) Russia has the longest border with China;
b) the southernmost point is on the border with Azerbaijan;
c) in the southwest, Russia borders on Moldova and Romania;
d) Russia borders on all CIS countries.
3. With which country does Russia have territorial disputes:
a) Georgia; b) Kazakhstan; c) India; d) Japan.
4. The Sayan Mountains are located along the Russian border with:
a) Mongolia; b) Kazakhstan; c) China; d) North Korea.
5. In which city is the most unfavorable natural conditions for the life of the population:
a) Rostov-on-Don; b) Yaroslavl; c) Norilsk; Novosibirsk city.
6. Russia ranks first in the world in terms of reserves:
a) natural gas and potassium salts; c) oil and iron ores;
b) hydropower resources and gold; d) timber and aluminum ores.
7. The coast is favorable for the development of tidal energy:
a) the Baltic Sea near Kaliningrad; c) the Sea of Okhotsk in its northern part;
b) the Sea of Azov in the Krasnodar Territory; d) the Black Sea near the city of Sochi.
8. The maximum amount of water resources in Russia consumes:
a) industry; b) agriculture; c) scientific sphere; d) utilities.
a) re-emigration - the return of the population to their homeland.
b) agglomeration - a cluster of cities;
c) city - a settlement where the majority of the population is not employed in agriculture;
d) urbanization - population decline.
10. Choose the correct statements:
a) in terms of population, Russia surpasses Pakistan and Brazil combined;
b) most of the population of Russia speaks the languages of the Indo-European language family;
c) the proportion of women in the population of Siberia and the Far East is high;
d) large cities include urban settlements with a population of over 50 thousand people.
11. Find the error:
a) Buryats are Buddhists; c) Chukchi - traditional beliefs;
b) Tatars are Muslims; d) Kalmyks are Orthodox.
12. The economically active population is:
a) 65 - 75 million people; c) 25 - 30 million people;
b) 15 - 25 million people; d) 140 - 145 million people.
13. The share of the urban population in Russia is:
a) 50 - 60%; c) 70 - 80%;
b) 60 - 70%; d) 80 - 90%.
14. A nuclear power plant is located in the Eastern macroregion of Russia:
a) Bilibinskaya; b) Smolensk; c) Balakovskaya; d) Kursk.
15. Indicate the correct statements:
a) the transfer of TPPs to oil will reduce the cost of electricity;
b) Russia leads the world in oil production;
c) an open method of coal mining causes less harm to nature than a mine;
d) the cost of coal mining in the Kansk-Achinsk basin is the lowest in the country.
16. Select the diagram that correctly shows the relationship between oil, gas and coal in the production of electricity at TPPs in Russia:
17. Select from the list of HPPs:
a) Surgut; c) Kursk; b) Kislogubskaya; d) fraternal.
18. Specify the deposit of iron ore:
a) Kachkanarskoye; c) Volkhov; b) Guy; d) Mednogorsk.
19. The center of ferrous metallurgy of the CCR is:
a) Cherepovets b) Novokuznetsk; c) Stary Oskol; d) Nizhny Tagil.
20. Indicate the wrong combination of "city - metal - location factor":
a) Cherepovets - copper - raw;
b) Krasnoyarsk - aluminum - energy;
c) Norilsk - nickel - raw material;
d) Magnitogorsk - steel - raw.
21. Choose the wrong relationship scheme:
a) logging > sawmilling > pulp and paper mill;
b) bauxite > alumina > aluminum smelting;
c) iron ore > concentrate > rolled products > cast iron;
d) oil > oil refining > plastics production.
22. Define the center of the automotive industry:
a) Nizhny Novgorod; b) Kursk; c) Murmansk; d) Irkutsk.
23. Highlight an area favorable for the placement of a plant for the production of agricultural machinery:
a) Yakutia; c) Khabarovsk Territory;
b) Magadan region; d) Rostov region.
24. Indicate the correct combination "city - engineering industry":
a) Chelyabinsk - automotive industry;
b) Engels - production of trolleybuses;
c) Murmansk - aircraft industry;
d) Izhevsk - production of tractors.
25. Specify the region of sheep breeding:
a) Yakutia; c) Ivanovo region;
b) Moscow region; d) Republic of Altai.
26. Indicate the correct combinations "district - agricultural crops":
a) North Caucasus - rice, citrus fruits, grapes;
b) the Volga region - grain, melons, vegetables;
c) Central Black Earth region - rice, soybeans, tobacco;
d) Far East - sunflower, rye, sugar beets.
27. Set the correct combination "port - the most important cargo":
a) Arkhangelsk - oil; c) Makhachkala - ore.
b) Novorossiysk - grain; d) Igarka - forest;
Grade 9
I option
1. Select the option that lists only the capitals of the autonomous regions of Russia:
a) Tura, Salekhard, Anadyr; c) Orenburg, Volgograd, Maykop;
b) Petrozavodsk, Ufa, Elista; d) Naryan-Mar, Kazan, Birobidzhan.
2. Specify the territories of Russia that became part of it after 1940:
a) Krasnodar Territory; c) Kaliningrad region;
b) Amur region; d) the Kola Peninsula.
3. Which subjects of the federation are included in the Central District?
a) Vladimir region; c) Leningrad region;
b) Vologda region; d) Pskov region;
4. Specify the resources of the Central District:
a) bauxites, oil; c) agro-climatic, water;
b) apatite, forest; d) phosphorites, brown coal.
5. Select the republic that is part of the Volga-Vyatka region:
a) Adygea; b) Mordovia; c) Kalmykia; d) Tatarstan.
6. Select the cities of the "Golden Ring" of Russia:
a) Novgorod, Pskov, Rostov; c) Moscow, Nizhny Novgorod, Ryazan;
b) Smolensk, Kursk, Bryansk; d) Yaroslavl, Suzdal, Vladimir.
7. Choose the wrong option:
a) shawls - Pavlovsky Posad; c) ceramics - Gzhel, Likino-Dulyovo;
b) embroidery - Palekh; d) wooden toy - Sergiev Posad.
8. Select the centers of the textile industry:
a) Ryazan, Tula, Kaluga; b) Yaroslavl, Nizhny Novgorod, Voronezh;
c) Kursk, Bryansk, Lipetsk; d) Ivanovo, Noginsk, Orekhovo-Zuevo.
9. Choose the wrong option:
a) HPP - Kislogubskaya; b) TPP - Kirishskaya; c) NPP - Leningradskaya.
10. Select the branches of specialization of agriculture in the northern part of the Volga-Vyatka region:
a) pig breeding, poultry farming, vegetable growing;
b) grain farming, beet growing, horticulture;
c) flax growing, potato growing, dairy cattle breeding;
d) sheep breeding, poultry farming, beef cattle breeding.
11. Indicate the mineral of the North-Western region:
a) phosphorites; b) iron ores; c) gas; d) oil.
12. Choose the option where the peoples living in the European North are indicated:
a) Russians, Khanty, Tatars; c) Khanty, Mansi, Yakuts;
b) Komi, Buryats, Koryaks; d) Karelians, Saami, Nenets.
13. Choose the option that incorrectly characterizes the natural resource potential of the European North:
a) Baltic Shield > hydropower resources;
b) sedimentary cover of the platform > gold;
V) geographical position> taiga zone;
d) access to the sea > fish resources.
14. Specify the nuclear power plant operating in the European North:
a) Kandalaksha; b) Kislogubskaya; c) Pauzhetskaya; d) Kola.
15. Specify the subjects of the federation that are not part of the North Caucasian economic region:
a) Krasnoyarsk Territory; c) the Republic of Ingushetia;
b) the Republic of Dagestan; d) Krasnodar Territory.
16. Select the option that lists the resort towns of the Black Sea coast of the Caucasus:
a) Taganrog, Yeysk, Temryuk; c) Anapa, Gelendzhik, Sochi;
b) Azov, Tuapse, Makhachkala; d) Kislovodsk, Krasnodar, Stavropol.
17. Specify the natural resources of the North Caucasus region:
a) oil, recreational and agro-climatic resources;
b) ferrous metal ores, phosphorites, peat;
c) coal, potash salts, forest resources;
d) precious stones, soil and hydropower resources.
a) Kurgan region; c) the Udmurt Republic;
b) Chelyabinsk region; d) Republic of Khakassia.
19. Choose the wrong option:
a) automotive industry - Izhevsk, Miass;
b) textile industry - Chelyabinsk;
c) heavy engineering - Yekaterinburg.
20. Select the peoples of Russia who do not have their own national - territorial entities:
a) Adyghe; b) Chechens; c) Ingush; d) Kumyks.
21. Select the peoples that have autonomy on the territory of the East Siberian region:
a) Russians; b) Evenks; c) Khanty; d) Karelians.
22. Define the economic region according to the description.
The region has a favorable geographical position. The natural resources of the region are oil, gas, agro-climatic and fish resources. The area specializes in a variety of mechanical engineering, chemical industry and agricultural products.
a) North Caucasian; c) Northwestern;
b) Central Black Earth; d) Volga.
23. Specify branches of specialization of the West Siberian economic region:
a) oil, gas, coal and metallurgical industries;
b) pulp and paper and fish industry, food;
c) electric power industry, shipbuilding, textile industry;
d) automotive, chemical and timber industries.
24. Choose the wrong option;
a) oil and gas - Urengoy, Medvezhye; c) copper-nickel ores - Chita;
b) coal - Cheremkhovo, Neryungri; d) iron ore - Korshunovskoye.
25. Choose the wrong option:
a) Norilsk - tractor building;
b) Vladivostok - shipbuilding and ship repair;
c) Novokuznetsk - a full cycle metallurgical plant;
d) Kemerovo - coal mining
26. Which city has coordinates
62 N 129 east:
a) Novorossiysk; c) Yakutsk; b) Krasnoyarsk; d) Vladivostok.
27. In the figure, the Kursk magnetic anomaly is indicated by a number:
a) 1; b) 2; at 5; d) 6;
Grade 9
Verification test after the end of the second half of the year
II option
1. Choose the correct option:
a) Evenk Autonomous Okrug - Ulan-Ude; c) Republic of Buryatia - Tura;
b) Republic of Komi - Kazan; d) Altai Territory - Barnaul
2. Select the option where only the capitals of the republics are indicated:
a) Kazan, Naryan-Mar, Salekhard; c) Orel, Saransk, Anadyr;
b) Petrozavodsk, Ufa, Elista; d) Khabarovsk, Birobidzhan, Yakutsk.
3. Specify the territory of Russia that became part of it after 1940:
a) Volgograd region; c) Primorsky Krai;
b) the islands of Svalbard; d) the Kuril Islands.
4. Specify the resources of the Central Black Earth region:
a) iron ores, soil resources; c) phosphorites, forest;
b) oil, gas, coal; d) bauxite, apatite.
5. Select areas where iron ore is mined:
a) Orlovskaya and Lipetskaya; c) Belgorod and Kursk;
b) Tula and Kaluga; d) Kursk and Lipetsk.
6. Choose the wrong option:
a) HPPs - Pecherskaya, Reftinskaya, Zagorskaya;
b) TPP - Shaturskaya, Kashirskaya, Konakovskaya;
c) NPP - Obninsk, Smolensk, Novovoronezh.
7.Choose the wrong option:
a) lacquer miniature - Palekh, Fedoskino;
b) wooden toy - Khokhloma, Gorodets;
c) painted metal trays - Yelets;
d) clay toy - Dymkovo.
8. Select the resources of the Northwestern region:
a) phosphorites, shales; c) oil, gas;
b) coal, marble; d) iron ores, apatites.
9. Specify the branch of agricultural specialization of the North-Western region:
a) beet growing; c) reindeer breeding; b) poultry farming; d) flax growing.
10. Select the settlement of the North-Western region, where aluminum ores are mined:
a) Tikhvin; b) Boksitogorsk; c) Kingisepp; d) Gatchina.
11. Choose the engineering industry that is better developed in St. Petersburg than in any other city in Russia:
a) tractor construction; c) shipbuilding;
b) automotive industry; d) instrumentation.
12. Select a republic that is part of the European North:
a) Karelia; b) Yakutia; c) Buryatia; d) Kalmykia;
13. Specify the raw materials used by the Cherepovets Metallurgical Plant:
a) KMA iron ores and Kuzbass coking coal;
b) iron ores of the Kola Peninsula and coking coal of the Donbass;
c) iron ores of the Kola Peninsula and coking coal of the Pechora basin;
d) KMA iron ores and coking coal of the Pechora basin.
14. Specify the unique power plant operating on the Kola Peninsula:
a) tidal; c) hydroaccumulating;
b) nuclear; d) geothermal.
15. Choose the option where the peoples living in the European North are indicated:
a) Karelians, Khanty, Bashkirs; c) Yakuts, Mansi, Komi-Permyaks;
b) Nenets, Koryaks, Udmurts; d) Russians, Komi, Saami.
16. Specify the subjects of the federation that are not part of the North Caucasian economic region:
a) Kabardino-Balkaria; c) Rostov region;
b) Orenburg region; d) Stavropol Territory.
17. What minerals are mined in the North Caucasus:
a) brown coal; c) copper ores;
b) coal; d) tungsten-molybdenum ores.
18. Specify the subjects of the federation that are not part of the Ural region:
a) the Republic of Tatarstan; c) Chelyabinsk region;
b) Udmurt Republic; d) Republic of Bashkortostan.
19. Select the centers of non-ferrous metallurgy of the Urals:
a) Volgograd, Krasnouralsk, Mednogorsk;
b) Miass, Perm, Tyumen;
c) Orsk, Krasnoturinsk, Upper Ufaley;
d) Yekaterinburg, Samara, Kazan.
20. Choose the correct option:
a) automotive industry - Naberezhnye Chelny, Togliatti;
b) shipbuilding - Volgograd;
c) tractor construction - Astrakhan.
21. Define the economic region according to the description.
The area stretches from the forest zone to the semi-desert zone. It has significant hydropower resources, agro-climatic resources, oil and gas reserves, as well as table salt.
a) Central; b) Northwestern; c) Volga region; d) North.
22. Specify the people living in the North Caucasus:
a) Ossetians; b) Udmurts; c) Buryats; d) Karelians.
23. Specify the subjects of the federation that are not part of the East Siberian economic region:
a) Tyva; b) Chita region; c) Khakassia; d) Primorsky Krai.
24. Select the people that have autonomy on the territory of the Far Eastern economic region:
a) Russians; b) Jews; c) Udmurts; d) Karelians.
25. Specify branches of specialization of the East Siberian economic region:
a) ferrous metallurgy, engineering, agriculture;
b) shipbuilding, automotive, textile industry;
c) oil, gas, coal and metallurgical industries;
d) non-ferrous metallurgy, pulp and paper industry, electric power industry.
26. Choose the correct option:
a) HPPs - Nizhnevartovskaya, Surgutskaya;
b) NPP, GeotPP - Bilibinskaya, Pauzhetskaya.
c) TPP - Bratskaya, Zeya;
27. In the figure, the Sayano-Shushenskaya HPP is indicated by the number:
a) 5; b) 3; at 2; d) 1.
Preview:
Screening test "Foreign Europe"
A1. Which European country is the largest in area?
1) Spain 2) Ukraine 3) France 4) Germany
A2. Which European country is the most populous?
1) Great Britain 2) Germany 3) France 4) Spain
A3. Which European country has the highest natural population growth rate?
1) Albania 2) Iceland 3) Macedonia 4) Romania
A4. Choose which of the following states is the only colony in Europe:
1) Andorra 2) Gibraltar 3) Luxembourg 4) Malta
A5. Which of the following countries does not grow grapes?
1) Bulgaria 2) Italy 3) Spain 4) Poland
A6. Choose the largest European seaport:
1) Hamburg 2) London 3) Marseille 4) Rotterdam
7. "Forest shop" of Foreign Europe is:
1) Sweden and Finland 3) Germany and France
2) Switzerland and France 4) Poland and Czech Republic
A8. Indicate the state of Europe, which is the most striking example of a bilingual country:
1) Netherlands 2) Luxembourg 3) Belgium 4) Switzerland
A9. The Upper Silesian Coal Basin is located on the territory of:
1) Czech Republic 2) Germany 3) Poland 4) Hungary
AT 2. Arrange the countries in descending order of their natural population growth (per 1 thousand people)
1) Bulgaria 2) Greece 3) Lithuania 4) Germany
IN 1. Set the correspondence between the country and its capital:
Capital Country
1) Zagreb A) Albania
2) Tirana B) Macedonia
3) Skopje B) Croatia
D) Bulgaria
AT 3. Which three of the listed states of Foreign Europe do not have access to the sea?
1) Austria 2) Belgium 3) Hungary 4) Liechtenstein 5) Slovenia
AT 4. Identify the country by its brief description.
“This is a state with the smallest area of territory and the minimum number of inhabitants, unique in its form of government. It has its own government, bank, guards, laws. The sphere of activity of this state is the whole world.
AT 5. Identify the country by its brief description.
"This country has the largest population among the countries of Eastern Europe. The population is single-ethnic, strong influence catholic church. It ranks first in the world in terms of reserves of brown coal, construction raw materials, one of the first in terms of reserves of hard coal, native sulfur. On the territory of the country there is the largest industrial center of a pan-European scale.
C1. Why are the major centers of ferrous metallurgy in Italy located on the seashore? Give at least two reasons.
Instructions for checking "Foreign Europe" Grade 11
job number | Answer |
PSA |
|
2 1 3 4 |
|
1 3 4 |
|
Vatican |
|
Poland |
From 1.
Correct Answer Content Elements (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
1) There are no own resources for the development of ferrous metallurgy in Italy, so raw materials have to be imported. 2) It is advantageous to deliver raw materials to Italy by sea, because it is a coastal country with many ports on the coast. 3) Ferrous metallurgy centers in Italy are located in large ports (through which raw materials are delivered). | |
Instructions for grading | |
The answer includes all three of the above elements. | |
The answer includes two (1st and 3rd or 2nd and 3rd) of the above elements | |
Wrong answer OR all of the above items are missing | |
Maximum score |
Screening test "Foreign Asia"
after the end of the 1st semester, grade 11
Performed:___________________________________________________________________
Date of:_________________________________________________________________________
1. Area of Asia
A. 27 million km2
b. 30 million km
V. 17 million km
2. Mongolia stretches from west to east
A. 2.4 thousand km
b. 5 thousand km
V. 1.6 thousand km
3. The largest landlocked state in terms of area
A. Kazakhstan
b. Mongolia
V. Türkiye
4. Find the right answer
A. 10% of the population lives in the colonies of Asia
b. in zarub. Asia dominated by republics
V. folded areas are dominated by sedimentary p/i
5. Sakura is -
A. wild Cherry
b. wild apple tree
6. Main partners of China
A. Mongolia Japan
b. Japan USA
V. Russia Korea
7. Japan stretches from N to S to:
A. 2.5 thousand km
b. 1.4 thousand km
V. 2.4 thousand km
8. Mark the correct statements:
A. China is the 3rd largest country in the world
b. China's maritime borders are longer than land borders
V. rice growing areas - Mediterranean
9. How many peoples live in Asia
A. 100
b. 1000
V. 10000
10. At what stage of development is China
A. industrial
b. agricultural
in the post-industrial
11. Name the NIS of Asia
A. Rep. Korea Singapore Taiwan Malaysia Indonesia
b. China Thailand Mongolia
12. The area of subtropical agriculture is typical for
A. mediterranean
b. South-East Asia
V. East Asia
13. What type of transport is missing in Japan
A. railway river
b. river pipeline
V. river horse-drawn
14. Population density in Japan.
A. 340 people
b. 100 people
V. 500 people
15. The main branches of light industry in India
A. cotton shoe
b. jute sewing cotton
V. knitted sewing
16. What type of reproduction is Japan
A. 1 type
b. type 2
A. Mongolia
B. Bangladesh
18. What religion do the Japanese practice
A. Confucianism
B. Shinto
V. Hinduism
19. Japanese traditional industry
A. pig breeding
B. fishing
B. poultry farming
20. Capital of India?
Capital of China?
Capital of Japan?
21. What natural conditions prevail in Asia
A. plains
B. desert highlands
22. What form of rural settlement is typical for Asian countries
A. farm
B. settlement
V. village
Answers to the test "Foreign Asia"
1 a
2 a
3 b
4 b
5 a
6 b
7 a
8 a
9 b
10 a
11 a
12 a
13 b
14 a
15 b
16 a
17 a
18 b
19 b
20 Delhi Beijing Tokyo
21 b
22 in
Verification test « Latin America"
for the 2nd half of the 11th grade
Performed:___________________________________________________________________
Date of:_________________________________________________________________________
- Latin America lacks:
1) developing states; 2) coastal states; 3) federations; 4) monarchy.
- Select Latin American states that do not have access to the oceans:
1) Uruguay and Paraguay; 2) Paraguay and Bolivia; 3) Bolivia and Peru; 4) Peru and Uruguay.
- Establish a correspondence between the countries of Latin America and their minerals.
A country:
1. Venezuela.
2. Chile.
4. Bolivia.
Mineral resource:
A. Bauxite.
B. Tin ores.
B. Copper ores.
G. Oil.
- Latin America ranks first among the regions of the world in terms of resource endowment:
1) soil; 2) water; 3) hydropower; 4) land.
- The most common language in Latin America is:
1) English; 2) French; 3) Spanish; 4) Portuguese.
- The largest cities (urban agglomerations) in Latin America are:
1) Mexico City and Rio de Janeiro;
2) Rio de Janeiro and Lima;
3) Lima and Sao Paulo;
4) Sao Paulo and Mexico City.
- The current population of Latin America is:
1) grows only due to migration inflow;
2) grows only due to natural growth;
3) grows both due to migration inflow and due to natural increase;
4) is declining due to natural loss and migration outflow.
- Select a group of Latin American countries in which metallurgy has reached a fairly high level of development:
1) Mexico, Chile and Brazil;
2) Colombia, Venezuela and Panama;
3) Bolivia, Uruguay and Paraguay;
4) Nicaragua, Honduras and Guatemala.
- A cascade of hydroelectric power stations, including the most powerful hydroelectric power station in the world, operates in Latin America on the river:
1) Amazon; 2) Parana; 3) Orinoco; 4) Rio Grande.
- Find the error in the list of Latin American countries specializing in coffee exports:
1) Mexico; 2) Colombia; 3) Cuba; 4) Brazil.
- The State of Paraguay belongs to the subregion of Latin America:
1) Middle America; 2) Andean countries; 3) the countries of the La Plata basin.
- Find the mistake in the list of natural resources, in terms of reserves of which Brazil is one of the world leaders:
1) water; 2) forest; 3) soil; 4) agroclimatic.
- The highest population density is observed in Brazil on:
1) northwest of the country;
2) the northeast of the country;
3) the southeast of the country;
4) southwest of the country.
- Select crops for which Brazil is one of the world's top harvesters:
1) potatoes and sugar beets;
2) sugar beet and sugar cane;
3) sugar cane and oranges;
4) oranges and potatoes.
- The modern "economic capital" of Brazil is:
1) Rio de Janeiro; 2) Sao Paulo; 3) El Salvador; 4) Buenos Aire With.
Test Answers
"Latin America"
for the 2nd half of the 11th grade
job number | Answer |
1-G, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B |
|
Verification test "North America"
for the 2nd half of the 11th grade
Performed:___________________________________________________________________
Date of:_________________________________________________________________________
- The territory of the United States has access to the oceans:
1) one; 2) two; 3) three; 4) four.
- According to the state system of the United States are:
1) a unitary republic;
2) a federal republic;
3) a unitary monarchy;
4) a federal monarchy.
- In terms of population, the United States ranks in the world:
1) the first; 2) second; 3) third; 4) fourth.
- In the USA it is combined:
1) the presence of megalopolises and group rural settlement;
2) the presence of megalopolises and scattered rural settlement;
3) the absence of megalopolises and group rural settlement;
4) the absence of megalopolises and scattered rural settlement.
- The internal migrations of the USA are dominated by the flow of migrants with:
1) north to south;
2) south to north;
3) west to east;
4) east to west.
- Name the major oil-producing state in the United States:
1) New York; 2) California; 3) Texas; 4) Florida.
- Choose a city that is called the "aerospace capital" of the United States:
1) New York; 2) Houston; 3) Los Angeles; 4) Chicago.
- Establish a correspondence between the US states and agricultural industries, which are their industries of specialization.
State:
1. California.
2. Mississippi.
3. Colorado.
4 Kansas
Production:
A. Pasture animal husbandry.
B. Growing vegetables and fruits.
B. Cultivation of cotton.
D. Growing wheat.
- The largest transport hub in the United States is:
1) New York; 2) Chicago; 3) Los Angeles; 4) San Francisco.
- The most dynamically developing macro-region of the USA is:
1) Northeast; 2) Midwest; 3) South; 4) West.
- In the 19th century Canada was a colony
1) USA; 2) Great Britain; 3) France; 4) Russia.
- Find the error in the list of major population groups in Canada:
1) Anglo-Canadians;
2) French Canadians;
3) Eskimos;
4) Hispanics.
- Canada is an urbanized country:
1) highly and densely populated;
2) highly and sparsely populated;
3) weakly and densely populated;
4) sparsely and sparsely populated.
- One of the main branches of Canadian agricultural specialization in the world market is:
1) cultivation of sugar cane;
2) growing cereals;
3) growing cotton;
4) sheep breeding.
- The main area of the woodworking industry in Canada is the area:
1) Central; 2) Steppe; 3) Pacific; 4) Atlantic.
Test Answers
« North America"
for the 2nd half of the 11th grade
job number | Answer |
1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A, 4 - D |
|
Verification test
for the 2nd half of the 11th grade
Performed:___________________________________________________________________
Date of:_________________________________________________________________________
- Please indicate the number of major global problems:
1) 1-2; 2) 8-10; 3) 40-45; 4) 90-100.
- As a result of the accident at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant, the following territories were particularly hard hit:
1) Turkey and Bulgaria;
2) Bulgaria and Ukraine;
3) Ukraine and Belarus;
4) Belarus and Turkey.
- According to UN forecasts, the population of the Earth by 2050 will be approximately:
1) 6 billion people; 2) 7.5 billion people; 3) 9 billion people; 4) 10.5 billion people
- The danger of a global nuclear war began to wane towards the end:
1) 1940s; 2) 1960s; 3) 1980s; 4) 1990s
- Find the error in the list of countries where the average number of kilocalories consumed per person per day exceeds the world average:
1) Italy;
2) Australia;
3) Argentina;
4) Indonesia.
- The coefficient of useful use of already extracted fuel and raw materials is usually at present:
1) 0,1; 2) 0,3; 3) 0,6; 4) 0,8.
- Point deadly dangerous disease, which is now almost completely eliminated all over the world:
1) smallpox; 2) malaria; 3) AIDS; 4) cancer.
- Find the error in the list of industries typical for port industrial complexes:
1) shipbuilding;
2) oil refining;
3) woodworking;
4) metallurgy.
- A country that is one of the world leaders in space exploration is:
1) Japan;
2) Germany;
3) Australia;
4) Russia.
- Choose a couple of countries that are among the most backward in the world:
1) Greece and Portugal;
2) Argentina and Chile;
3) Chad and Niger;
4) Malaysia and Indonesia.
- A global problem that is not typical for developed countries is:
1) hunger;
2) environmental pollution;
3) space exploration;
4) development of the World Ocean.
- In the global forecasts of human development in the 1990s. approach prevailed:
1) pessimistic; 2) optimistic.
- The Oikoumenopolis hypothesis suggests:
1) creation on Earth of a zone of continuous urban settlement;
2) cessation of the growth of the Earth's population;
3) climate warming on Earth;
4) cooling of the climate on Earth.
- The sustainable development strategy was adopted under the auspices of:
1) NATO; 2) UNESCO; 3) UN; 4) ASEAN.
- Find an error in the list of main components of a sustainable development strategy:
1) sustainable economic development;
2) sustainable social development;
3) sustainable political development;
4) sustainable ecological development.
Test Answers
"Global problems of mankind"
for the 2nd half of the 11th grade
job number | Answer |
2 | 3 |
3 | 3 |
4 | 3 |
5 | 4 |
6 | 2 |
7 | 1 |
8 | 3 |
9 | 4 |
10 | 3 |
11 | 1 |
12 | 2 |
13 | 1 |
14 | 3 |
15 | 3 |
Geography report
at the end of the 1st half of the 10th grade
Section 1. Modern methods geographical research.
Sources of geographic information.
geographical nomenclature.Location on the mapmajor geographic features.
Section 2. Nature and man in the modern world.
Geographic dictation. Basic concepts of the topic:
Natural resources
Natural resource potential
Geographic space
Noosphere
appropriating economy
The producing economy
nature management
Section 3. The population of the world.
Practical work "Identification of the main trends in the modern process of urbanization"
Based on the analysis of the tables, draw a general conclusion about the directions and depth of the process of urbanization in the world.
Test
Section 4. Geography of the world economy.
for the 2nd half of the 10th grade
Questions:
- Placement factors the most important industries economy.
- Geography of the manufacturing industry.
- Geography of agriculture
- World transport system.
- The largest international industry and regional unions.
Preview:
Tasks 1-3 are performed on the basis of the text below.
“In accordance with the law“ On the calculation of time ”and the decree of the Russian government, 9 time zones are established in the country (see map). At the same time, the seasonal clock change is canceled, so Moscow time, for example, in the summer will differ from the time of the zero time zone for 3 hours, and in winter - for 4.
1 . What time zone is Moscow in?
1) 0 2) I 3) II 4) IV
2. How many hours does Moscow time differ from the time of the Greenwich meridianin summer time?
3 . What time will it be in Moscow on June 1, when it is noon in London?
1) 9 a.m. 2) 10 a.m. 3) 2 p.m. 4) 3 p.m.
Read the excerpts from the text of Article 1 of the Law of the Russian Federation "On the Continental Shelf of the Russian Federation" and complete tasks 4 and 5.
"The continental shelf of the Russian Federation (hereinafter referred to as the continental shelf) includes the seabed and subsoil of submarine areas located outside the territorial sea of the Russian Federation (hereinafter referred to as the territorial sea) throughout the natural extension of its land territory to the outer border of the underwater margin of the continent.
The underwater margin of the continent is a continuation of the continental mass of the Russian Federation, which includes the surface and subsoil of the continental shelf, slope and rise.
The inner limit of the continental shelf is the outer limit of the territorial sea.
The outer limit of the continental shelf is 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured, provided that the outer limit of the continental margin does not extend more than 200 nautical miles.
If the continental margin extends more than 200 nautical miles from the indicated baselines, the outer limit of the continental shelf coincides with the outer margin of the continental margin, as determined in accordance with international law."
4. What letter in the figure indicates the outer boundary of the underwater margin of the continent?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
5 . What letter in the figure indicates the outer limit of the continental shelf of the Russian Federation?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
Read the text and complete tasks 6 and 7 based on the content of the text.
"Trends in the population of Russian regions are notable for their diversity.
If in 7 regions - the Republics of Altai, Bashkortostan and Ingushetia, Khanty-Mansiysk Autonomous Okrug, Krasnoyarsk Territory, Tomsk and Tyumen Regions - the population in 2010 grew due to both natural and migration growth, then in 31 regions it decreased as a result of natural decline , and migration outflow.
In 17 regions - the Republics of Buryatia, Dagestan, Kabardino-Balkaria, Kalmykia, Karachay-Cherkessia, Sakha (Yakutia), North Ossetia - Alania, Tuva, Khakassia, Udmurtia and Chechnya, Nenets, Chukotka and Yamalo-Nenets Autonomous Okrugs. Trans-Baikal Territory, Astrakhan and Irkutsk regions - the natural increase is combined with the migration outflow of the population.
In the remaining 28 regions, the migration influx to some extent compensates for the natural decline in the population. "(See Fig.)
Components of population change in regions - subjects of the Russian Federation for 2010, by federal districts.
6. In which region did the population increase in 2010?
1) Komi Republic 3) Tyumen region
2) Trans-Baikal Territory 4) Primorsky Territory
Slides captions:
FEATURES OF THE EXAMINATION WORK IN GEOGRAPHY YES. Komarov EFFECTIVE PREPARATION FOR THE USE-2013
The structure of the examination paper of the sample of 2013 A 24 C 6 B 13 Total 43 tasks Completion time - 180 min.
Distribution of tasks of the examination paper by content and their number Sources of geographical information (6). The nature of the Earth and man (7). World population (6). world economy(5). Nature management and geoecology (3). Regions and countries of the world (4). Geography of Russia (12).
Distribution of tasks by level of complexity Level of complexity of tasks Number of tasks Numbers of tasks Basic 28 A1 - A24, B1 - B3, B12 Advanced 9 B4 - B10, B13, C4 High 6 B11, C1 - C3, C5, C6 Total 43
1) On the plans of the area, projections are used. 2) The plans of the area are small-scale. 3) The terrain plan allows you to determine geographic coordinates with great accuracy. 4) The terrain plan allows you to determine the distances between objects with sufficient accuracy. A1. Which of the following statements about the ground plan is correct? GEOGRAPHICAL MODELS. GEOGRAPHICAL MAP, LOCATION PLAN (85%)
1) Cloudy weather with precipitation is associated with cyclones. 2) Clear, sunny weather is associated with cyclones. 3) Cloudy, rainy weather is associated with anticyclones. 4) Windy, unstable weather is associated with anticyclones. A2. Which of the statements about the relationship of atmospheric phenomena is true? LITHOSPHERE, ATMOSPHERE, HYDROSPHERE (79%)
1) open pit coal mining 2) toxic waste disposal in the forest-steppe zone 3) creation of forest belts in the steppe zone 4) timber floating down rivers. A3. An example of rational nature management is NATURAL RESOURCES. RATIONAL AND UNRATIONAL ENVIRONMENT MANAGEMENT (80%)
moist equatorial forests of savannas and light forests 3) deserts 4) steppes. A4. The climatic conditions of which of the natural zones are characterized by the alternation of dry and wet seasons of the year GEOGRAPHICAL SHELL OF THE EARTH. LATITUDE ZONING AND ALTITUDE ZONATION (67%)
FEATURES OF THE NATURE OF CONTAINERS AND OCEANS. FEATURES OF THE DISTRIBUTION OF LARGE FORMS OF THE RELIEF OF RUSSIA (57%) 1) Central Siberia 2) Southern Siberia 3) Far East 4) North-Eastern Siberia A5. The Verkhoyansk Range is located within
FEATURES OF THE NATURE OF CONTAINERS AND OCEANS. CLIMATE TYPES, THEIR FORMATION FACTORS, RUSSIA'S CLIMATIC BELT (79%) А6. Most precipitation falls on the territory indicated on the map of the mainland by the letter A B C D
EARTH AS A PLANET. SHAPE, DIMENSIONS, MOVEMENT OF THE EARTH (68%) A7. Which of the following parallels on June 22 has the shortest daylight hours 1) 23°N. 2) 5°N 3) 30° S 4) 60° S
AGE AND SEX COMPOSITION OF THE POPULATION (84%) 1) Afghanistan 2) Sweden 3) Laos 4) Egypt А8. Which of the following countries has the highest proportion of older people in the total population?
URBAN AND RURAL POPULATION OF THE WORLD. MIGRATION. MAIN DIRECTIONS AND TYPES OF MIGRATION IN THE WORLD (74%) 1) In 1950, there were 170 urban agglomerations in the USA, and in the late 90s. - about 300. 2) In 2006, 187 thousand people arrived in the Russian Federation, and 54 thousand people left. 3) The average density of the rural population in Russia is approximately 2.2 people per 1 sq. km. km. 4) Group (village) form of rural settlement prevails in Russia, Foreign Europe, China and Japan A9. Which of the following statements contains information about population migration
GEOGRAPHICAL PECULIARITIES OF POPULATION DISTRIBUTION. IRREGULAR DISTRIBUTION OF THE POPULATION OF THE EARTH (84%) 1) Western China. 2) Central Australia. 3) Northern Canada. 4) East of Brazil. A10. Which area has the highest population density?
LEVEL AND QUALITY OF LIFE OF THE POPULATION (78%) 1) Iran. 2) Switzerland. 3) Namibia. 4) Vietnam. A11. Which of the following countries has the highest average life expectancy?
STRUCTURE OF POPULATION EMPLOYMENT. SECTORAL STRUCTURE OF THE ECONOMY (80%) 1) Laos 2) Italy 3) Austria 4) Spain А12. Which country is characterized by the structure of GDP shown in the diagram
LEADING EXPORTING COUNTRIES OF THE MAIN TYPES OF AGRICULTURAL PRODUCTS. MAIN INTERNATIONAL ROUTES AND TRANSPORT HUBS (81%) 1) Argentina 2) Turkey 3) Mongolia 4) Denmark А13. In which of the following countries is dairy cattle breeding the leading branch of agriculture?
MODERN POLITICAL MAP OF THE WORLD (62%) 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D А14. What letter on political map Europe designated the state of Poland
FEATURES OF NATURAL RESOURCE POTENTIAL, POPULATION, ECONOMY, CULTURE OF LARGE COUNTRIES OF THE WORLD (80%) 1) Düsseldorf 2) Munich 3) Hamburg 4) Berlin А15. Which city is the largest seaport in Germany?
TERRITORY AND WATERS, SEA AND LAND BORDERS OF RUSSIA (82%) 1) Russia has the longest land border with Mongolia 2) The extreme western point of Russia is in the Pskov region 3) The extreme southern point of Russia is located on the border with Azerbaijan 4) The area of the country is 27 million sq. km A16. Which statement about the geographical location of Russia is true
ACCOMMODATION OF THE POPULATION OF RUSSIA. MAIN STRIP OF SETTLEMENT (77%) A B 3) C 4) D A17. Which of the regions indicated by letters on the map of Russia is not included in the main zone of settlement
URBAN AND RURAL POPULATION. RUSSIAN CITIES (81%) 1) Astrakhan 2) Bryansk 3) Ryazan 4) Samara A18. Which of the following cities in Russia is the largest in terms of population
GEOGRAPHY OF AGRICULTURE. GEOGRAPHY OF THE MOST IMPORTANT MODES OF TRANSPORT (55%) Far East Central Russia 3) European South 4) Western Siberia А19. Which of the following regions of Russia has the largest sunflower acreage?
NATURAL AND ECONOMIC ZONING OF RUSSIA. REGIONS OF RUSSIA (73%) 1) Central Black Earth 2) Volga 3) North-West 4) Northern A20. The diagram shows the characteristic features of the economic region Low population density One million-plus city Rural population lives in villages Most of the inhabitants live in cities
RUSSIA IN THE MODERN WORLD (77%) Oils Natural gas 3) Hard coal 4) Iron ores А21. Russia ranks first in the world in terms of reserves and production
DETERMINATION OF GEOGRAPHICAL OBJECTS AND PHENOMENA ON THEIR ESSENTIAL FEATURES (71%) 1) By the beginning of the XXI century. in more than 80 countries, the share of services in GDP exceeded 50%. 2) In Russia at the end of the nineteenth century. 50 people were born per 1000 inhabitants annually, and 35 died. 3) At the end of the 20th century. in North America and Western Europe, economic growth was below the world average. 4) The number of large cities in Russia is increasing, small settlements are being created around them, resulting in the emergence of urban agglomerations A22. Which statement contains information about urbanization
GEOGRAPHY OF RELIGIONS OF THE WORLD. PEOPLES AND MAIN RELIGIONS OF RUSSIA (71%) Kalmyks Ossetians Bashkirs Tatars A23. Most of the believers of which of the following nations profess Buddhism
WORLD ECONOMY. ECONOMY OF RUSSIA. REGIONS OF RUSSIA only conclusion A is correct 2) only conclusion B is correct 3) both conclusions are correct 4) both conclusions are incorrect A24. Are the following conclusions about the trends in changes in the volume of industrial production and agricultural production in the Bryansk region, made on the basis of an analysis of the data in the table above, correct? Year 2004 2005 2006 2007 .3 95.1 98.8 Conclusion A: 2007 saw an increase in industrial production compared to the previous year. Conclusion B: in 2007, there was a decline in agricultural production compared to the previous year. Dynamics of industrial production and agricultural production in the Bryansk region (as a percentage of the previous year)
WEATHER AND CLIMATE. DISTRIBUTION OF HEAT AND MOISTURE ON THE GROUND (76%) В1. Using the map, compare the average air temperatures in January at the points marked on the map with the letters A, B, C. Arrange these points in order of decreasing temperature values. A C B Write down the resulting sequence of letters in the table
WORLD OCEAN AND ITS PARTS. WATER LAND. FEATURES OF THE NATURE OF THE continents and oceans (1.4) B2. Establish a correspondence between the sea and the ocean to which this sea belongs SEA OCEAN 1) Caribbean A) Atlantic 2) Tasmanovo B) Arctic 3) Baffin C) Indian D) Pacific
ADMINISTRATIVE AND TERRITORIAL STRUCTURE OF RUSSIA. CAPITALS AND LARGE CITIES (1.1) Q3. Establish a correspondence between the republic within the Russian Federation and its capital REPUBLIC CAPITAL A) Adygea 1) Maykop B) Tatarstan 2) Kazan C) Kalmykia 3) Syktyvkar 4) Elista Write in the table the numbers corresponding to the selected answers A B C
GEOGRAPHY OF THE INDUSTRY OF RUSSIA. LEADING EXPORTING COUNTRIES OF MAIN INDUSTRIAL PRODUCTS (1.1) B4. Which three of the following power plants are hydroelectric? Circle the numbers under which they are indicated and write in the table 1) Kursk 2) Krasnoyarsk 3) Bratsk 4) Bilibinsk 5) Ust-Ilimsk 6) Surgut
TIME ZONES Q5. In accordance with the Law “On the Calculation of Time” and the Decree of the Government of the Russian Federation, since September 2011, 9 time zones have been established in the country (see map) Answer: __11____ h. ) at 12 noon Kemerovo local time. Estimated flight time is 2 hours. What time will it be in Moscow when the plane lands? Write your answer in numbers.
DIRECTION AND TYPES OF MIGRATION OF POPULATION OF RUSSIA. URBAN AND RURAL POPULATION (74%) Q6. Of the four regions marked with letters on the map, indicate the name of the subject of Russia with the largest share of the urban population
GEOGRAPHICAL FEATURES OF REPRODUCTION OF THE WORLD POPULATION (47%) В7. Arrange the countries in ascending order of their natural population growth (per 1,000 inhabitants). A) Uganda B) Poland C) Chile D) Canada Write down the resulting sequence of letters in the table 1 2 3 4 B D C A
3 NATURAL RESOURCES (71%) Q8. Using the data in the table below, compare countries' water resource endowments. Arrange the countries in order of increasing resource availability Write down the resulting sequence of letters in the table 1 2 3 B C A
STAGES OF THE GEOLOGICAL HISTORY OF THE EARTH'S CRUST. GEOLOGICAL CHRONOLOGY (64%) B9. Arrange the listed periods of the geological history of the Earth in chronological order, starting from the earliest A) Silurian B) Cretaceous C) Triassic D) Neogene Write down the resulting sequence of letters in the table 1 2 3 4 A C B D
FEATURES OF NATURAL RESOURCE POTENTIAL, POPULATION, ECONOMY, CULTURE OF LARGE COUNTRIES OF THE WORLD (56%) В10. Identify the country by its brief description. It is one of the largest countries in the world by land area. It borders on land with only one state. On its territory is the extreme northern point of the mainland. The country is located in three climatic zones. There are many long and full-flowing rivers and lakes. More than a third of the country's territory is occupied by forests: the forest is one of the main natural resources. The south of the country is the most developed and populated part of it.
NATURAL AND ECONOMIC ZONING OF RUSSIA. REGIONS OF RUSSIA (49%) Q11. Define the region of Russia according to its brief description. This republic within the Russian Federation has a coastal geographical position. It has a land border with two foreign countries. Almost all of its territory is occupied by high mountains. Rural settlements in the mountains are called auls. In the total population, the share of rural residents reaches 60%. The population is characterized by a multinational composition - more than 130 nationalities live here.
GEOGRAPHICAL MODELS. GEOGRAPHICAL MAP, LOCATION PLAN (77%) B12. Determine on the map the distance along which you need to go from point K to point M. Write down the answer in numbers. 1:10,000 Answer:________ m.
GEOGRAPHICAL MODELS. GEOGRAPHICAL MAP, LOCATION PLAN (51%) Q13. Determine on the map the azimuth along which you need to go from point K to point M. Write down the answer in numbers. Answer: _______ degrees. 1:10 000
Check out the map
GEOGRAPHICAL MODELS. GEOGRAPHICAL MAP, LOCATION PLAN (1,3) С1. Build a terrain profile along the line A - B. To do this, transfer the basis for constructing the profile to answer form No. 2, using a horizontal scale of 1 cm 50 m and a vertical scale of 1 cm 5 m. Indicate the position of the Belichka River on the profile with an arrow.
Elements of the content of the correct answer Points 1) the horizontal scale of the profile is 1: 5 000 (the length of the horizontal line of the profile base is 80 2 mm) and the distance in the figure in the answer from the right vertical line of the profile base to the river is 27 2 mm 2) the shape of the profile in basically coincides with the standard 3) segment 2 shows a break Instructions for scoring The answer includes all three of the above elements 2 The answer includes one (1st) OR two (any) of the above elements 1 The answer includes one (2nd or 3- j) of the above elements OR all of the above elements are absent 0 Maximum score 2
LITHOSPHERE. HYDROSPHERE. ATMOSPHERE. BIOSPHERE. NATURE OF RUSSIA. DYNAMICS OF THE POPULATION OF THE EARTH. AGE AND SEX COMPOSITION OF THE POPULATION. FACTORS OF PLACEMENT OF PRODUCTION. GEOGRAPHY OF INDUSTRIES. RATIONAL AND UNRATIONAL ENVIRONMENT MANAGEMENT (1.0)
C2. The Voronezh region is one of the territories where water erosion of soils is a great danger. What factors, besides the relief features, contribute to the formation of ravines in the Voronezh region? Give two reasons.
Elements of the content of the correct answer (other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) Points 1) rapid snowmelt in spring; 2) the shower character of summer precipitation; 3) a high degree of plowing of the territory OR the destruction of natural vegetation; 4) Easily eroded rocks Grading guidelines The answer includes any two of the above elements 2 The answer includes one (any) element 1 All of the above elements are absent 0 Maximum score 2
C3. Using the data in the table, determine which of the countries - A, B or C - has a higher proportion of older people in the age structure of the population. State two reasons for the higher proportion of older people in the population of this country Demographics of countries A, B and C Indicators Country A Country B Country C Total population, million people 74.0 10.6 36.0 Population under the age of 15, mln. 36.6 1.7 18.0 Population over the age of 65, million people 3.7 1.9 1.8 Birth rate, ‰ 26 11 20 Mortality, ‰ 6 10 7 Life expectancy, years 69 77 70 Percentage of urban population, % 45 53 65 Average population density, person/km² 74 115 100
Elements of the content of the correct answer (other wording of the answer is allowed that does not distort its meaning) Scores 1) the proportion of older people in country B is higher 2) the birth rate is lower in country B 3) the average life expectancy in country B is higher Guidance for scoring The answer includes all three of the above elements 2 Answer includes two (1st and 2nd or 1st and 3rd) of the above elements 1 Answer includes one of the above elements OR none of the above elements 0 Maximum score 2
GEOGRAPHY OF THE MAIN BRANCHES OF INDUSTRIAL AND NON-MANUFACTURING SPHERES (1,2) С4. Using the data in the table, compare the share of agriculture in GDP and the share of agriculture in total exports of Argentina and Canada. Make a conclusion about which of these countries agriculture plays a large role in the economy. Write down the necessary numbers or calculations to support your answer.
Socio-economic indicators of the development of Argentina and Canada in 2007 Country Population, million people Share of urban population, % GDP, bln. Sectoral structure of GDP, % Total export volume, bln. The volume of agricultural exports, billion dollars Agriculture Industry Services Argentina 40 90 523 10 34 56 55 27.2 Canada 33 81 1266 2 28 70 433 29.5
Elements of the content of the correct answer (other wording of the answer is allowed that does not distort its meaning) Points The answer states that 1) the share of agriculture in Argentina's GDP is 10%, which is higher than in Canada - 2% 2) The share of agriculture in Argentina's exports higher than in Canada and the calculations are 27.2:55 and 29.5:433 3) Agriculture plays a large role in the economy of Argentina Grading guidelines Answer includes all three of the above items 2 Answer includes two (any) of the above items 1 All answers that do not meet the above criteria 0 Maximum score 2
EARTH AS A PLANET: MODERN LOOK OF PLANET EARTH. SHAPE, DIMENSIONS, MOVEMENT OF THE EARTH (0.7) С6. Determine in which of the points of countries marked with letters on the map of the Northern Hemisphere - A, B or C - on December 20, the Sun will rise above the horizon earlier (according to the time of the Greenwich meridian). Write down your reasoning
Elements of the content of the correct answer (other wordings of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) Points 1) the first time the sun rises above the horizon at point B 2) point B is located south of point A 3) point B is located east of point C Grading instructions The answer includes all three of the above elements 2 The answer includes two (1st and 2nd or 1st and 3rd) of the above elements 1 The answer includes one (any) of the above elements OR all of the above elements are missing 0 Maximum score 2
NUMBER, NATURAL MOVEMENT OF THE POPULATION OF RUSSIA. DIRECTION AND TYPES OF MIGRATION (1,3) С6. Both the natural movement of the population and migration have a noticeable impact on the population of the constituent entities of the Russian Federation. The table shows data taken from the official website of the Federal State Statistics Service.
Number and natural increase of the population of the Chuvash Republic 2006 2007 2008 Permanent population as of January 1, people 1292236 1286239 1282567 Average annual population, people 1288145 1283177 no data Natural population growth (person, value of the indicator per year) - 5609 - 3807 no data After analyzing these data, determine: 1) the rate of natural population growth in ‰ in 2007 for the Republic of Chuvashia. When calculating, use the indicator of the average annual population. Round the result to the nearest tenth of a ppm. 2) the value of the migration increase (loss) of the population of the Chuvash Republic in 2007. Write down the solution to the problem
Solution: 1282567 - 1286239 = - 3672 - 3672 - (- 3807) = 135 In 2007, the population of the region decreased by 3672 people. Due to natural attrition, there was a reduction by 3807 people. The migration growth of the population amounted to 135 people. Determination of the size of the migration increase in the population (2 b) Determination of the natural increase in population in ‰ (1 b) Solution: - 3807 * 1000 / 1283177 = 2.97 ≈ 3.0 ‰
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The first nucleotide in the triplet is taken from the left vertical row, the second from the upper horizontal row, and the third from the right vertical row. Where the lines coming from all three nucleotides intersect, the desired amino acid is located. Answer :
| Points |
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| 1) nucleotide sequence of the mRNA region: CACAUACCUUCA; 2) anticodons of tRNA molecules: GUG, UAU, GGA, AGU 3) the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule: | |
| OR | |
| OR | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
A B C D Answer :
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| The scheme for solving the problem includes: the blastula is designated by the letter G; blastula is formed when the zygote is crushed; the size of the blastula does not exceed the size of the zygote | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
46.
Name the stages of embryonic the development of the lancelet, indicated in the figure by the letters A and B. Expand the features of the formation of each of these stages. A B Answer
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| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| Answer elements: mistakes were made in the sentences: 1) A - gastrula - the stage of a two-layer embryo; 2) B - neurula, has the beginnings of a future larva or adult organism; 3) the gastrula is formed by invagination of the blastula wall, and in the neurula, the neural plate is first laid, which serves as a regulator for laying the rest of the organ systems | |
| OR 3 bugs listed but only 2 fixed | |
| OR 2-3 errors are indicated, but only 1 is corrected | |
| Errors not listed OR | |
| Maximum score |
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| The scheme for solving the problem includes: 1) genotypes of parents: red spherical fruits - AABB(gametes AB), yellow pear-shaped fruits aabb (gametes Ab); 2) genotypes F 1: red spherical Aab; 3) the ratio of phenotypes F 2: 9 - red spherical; 3 - red pear-shaped; 3 - yellow spherical; 1 - yellow pear-shaped | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| The scheme for solving the problem includes: 1) genotypes of parents: aabb (gametes - ab) And AaBb (gametes - AB,Ab, aB, ab); 2) offspring genotypes: 25% black hairy- AaBb; 25% black smooth - Ahbb; 25% white hairy - aaBb; 25% white smooth - aabb; 3) dihybrid analyzing cross. | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| The scheme for solving the problem includes: 1) genotypes of parents ♀ X H X h (gametes - X n , X h and ♂ X H Y (gametes - X n , Y); 2) offspring genotypes ♀ X H X h , ♂ X h Y, ♀X H X H , ♂ X H Y; 3) daughters - carriers of the hemophilia gene - 25%, sons with hemophilia - 25%, healthy children - 50% | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
Answer:
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| Answer elements: 1) the trait is recessive, not sex-linked; 2) genotypes of parents: ♀ Ah x ♂ Ah; 3) genotypes of offspring in F 1: 1.2 - Ah; 3 - AA or Ah; 4,5 - aa(other alphabetic symbols are allowed) | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
51. Why is a kidney considered a rudimentary shoot? What parts of a leaf bud are indicated by the number 1 in the figure? What role do they play in the life of the kidney? Answer:
| Answer elements: 1) a bud consists of a rudimentary stem, leaves and buds, that is, it has all the organs of the shoot; 2) 1 - kidney scales; 3) kidney scales perform a protective function | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
52. What type is the animal shown in the picture? What is indicated by numbers 1 and 2? Name other representatives of this type. Answer:
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Answer elements: 1) to the type of coelenterates; 2) 1 - ectoderm, 2 - intestinal cavity; 3) coral polyps, jellyfish | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR response, includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
Answer:
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Answer elements: 1) the ciliate cell performs all the functions of an independent organism: metabolism, reproduction, irritability, adaptation; 2) 1 - a small nucleus, participates in the sexual process; 3) 2 - a large core, regulates vital processes | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors. | |
| The response includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors. | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Answer elements: errors were made in the sentences: 1) 3 - not all arthropods have one pair of antennae (arachnids do not have them, but crustaceans have two pairs each); 2) 4 - not all arthropods have compound (compound) eyes: in arachnids they are simple or absent, in insects, along with compound eyes, they can be simple; 3) 5 - the circulatory system in arthropods is not closed | |
| All three errors are listed and corrected in the answer. | |
| In the answer, 2 errors are indicated and corrected, OR | |
| In the answer, 1 error was indicated and corrected, OR | |
| Errors not listed OR 1-3 errors are indicated, but none of them are corrected | |
| Maximum score |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Answer elements: errors were made in the sentences: 1) 2 - not all multicellular animals have bilateral body symmetry, for example, in intestinal cavities it is radial (radial); 4 - the circulatory system is also available in annelids and mollusks; 5 - direct postembryonic development not found in all multicellular animals | |
| All three errors are listed and corrected in the answer. | |
| In the answer, 2 errors are indicated and corrected, OR 3 bugs are listed, but only 2 of them are fixed | |
| In the answer, 1 error was indicated and corrected, OR 2-3 errors are indicated, but 1 of them is corrected | |
| Errors not listed OR 1-3 errors are indicated, but none of them are corrected | |
| Maximum score |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | |
| Response elements: fossil remains and imprints; transitional forms; phylogenetic series | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | |
| Response elements: type of adaptation - mimicry, imitation of the color and shape of the body of an unprotected animal to a protected one; resemblance to a wasp warns a possible predator of the danger of being stung; the fly becomes the prey of young birds that have not yet developed a reflex to the wasp | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
Answer:
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Answer elements: 1) evolution of plants; 2) A - fern-shaped, B - gymnosperms; 3) ferns have roots, the asexual generation predominates in the development cycle, and seeds appear in gymnosperms, their reproduction is not associated with water | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | 3 |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | 2 |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | 1 |
| Wrong answer | 0 |
| Maximum score | 3 |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) |
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| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| Content of the correct answer and instructions for scoring (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Response elements: differences in temperature fluctuations (wide amplitude of fluctuations in the ground-air environment); degree of illumination; density | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| OR the answer includes the 4 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2-3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning) | Points |
| Response elements: 1) the number of insect pollinated plants will decrease sharply, since herbivorous insects are plant pollinators; 2) the number of insectivorous organisms (consumers of the second order) will sharply decrease or disappear due to disruption of food chains; 3) part of the chemicals used to kill insects will enter the soil, which will lead to disruption of plant life, death of soil flora and fauna, all violations can lead to the death of oak forests | |
| The answer includes all the above elements (changes and their justifications), does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 3 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| If there is no answer, then X is entered into the protocol. | |
| Maximum score |
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
Response elements:
| |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| Answer elements: 1) duplication of DNA molecules; 2) synthesis of all types of RNA; 3) formation of ribosomes. | |
| The answer is correct, but incomplete, includes 2 of the above elements of the answer, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer is incomplete, includes 1 of the above elements of the answer, biological inaccuracies are possible | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| Points |
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| Response elements: 1) genotypes of parents: aabb; aaBb; 2) genotypes of children: aabb; aaBb;3) phenotypes of children: fair-haired with blue eyes; fair-haired with hazel eyes. | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
| Response elements: the appearance of a dense feather cover; fat storage; | |
| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer includes 2-3 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes the 3 elements mentioned above, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| The answer includes 1 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR the answer includes 2 of the above elements, but contains non-gross biological errors | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort it) meaning) | |
| Answer elements: 1) metabolism and energy conversion; 2) reproduction; 3) heredity and variability; 4) fitness; 5) irritability. | |
| The answer is correct and complete: includes all the above elements of the answer, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer is correct, but incomplete, includes 3-4 of the above elements of the answer, does not contain biological errors | |
| The answer is incomplete, includes 1-2 of the above elements of the answer, biological inaccuracies are possible | |
| Wrong answer | |
| Maximum score |
| (correct answer must contain the following items) | Points |
Response elements:
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| The answer includes all the above elements, does not contain biological errors | |
The answer includes 2 of the above elements and does not contain biological errors, OR Similar Documents:
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